Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Do polyphenols in mushrooms fight cancer or cause side effects?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

There's no rule.

Why do men always bring up “the draft” (the last military draft was in 1972) when abortion rights are being discussed? - are they advocating that women ought to owe our bodies to the government? Should anyone owe their body to the state?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Fear of Uncertainty Held S&P 500 Back From Record. Now It’s Real - Bloomberg.com

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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